pass-through items etc.
May 25, 2013 | 25,00 EUR | answered by Steuerberater Thomas Textoris
I have the following problem:
I sell a lot of "vouchers" in 2013 that will only be redeemed in 2014. Is it correct that the money from the voucher sales will only be booked when redeemed/rendered?
Then the next problem:
There is money in the voucher that is actually passing through... namely half of it. Since I simply pass it on to another company in exactly this amount, it is important that it does not affect my profit and turnover (also tax-wise). - that's why I would like to treat it as "foreign money"...
In addition to the voucher, there are the following items:
Shipping (in my opinion, to be taxed at 19%)
and costs for a special payment process e.g. instant bank transfer (how much should be taxed on this?)
What does the customer receive from me when buying the voucher (he only has the bank statement)?
Is this bank statement sufficient or do I need to issue an invoice (for postage and payment costs)?
pass-through item (foreign money - no VAT)
the customer only receives an invoice for the vouchers when they are redeemed - correct?
HELP!
Dear Mr. Inquirer,
In the context of an initial consultation and your fee contribution while adhering to the regulations of this forum, I would like to answer your question.
To distinguish between these two cases in terms of VAT:
1. General voucher (selection from the entire range)
If a company issues vouchers that do not entitle the recipient to specific services, it is simply the exchange of one form of payment (e.g. cash) for another form of payment (voucher). The issuance of the voucher itself does not constitute a supply. An advance payment (§ 13 Abs. 1 Satz 1 UStG) is also not present, as the service is not sufficiently specified. The supply becomes subject to VAT only upon redemption of the voucher.
Example: With a voucher from Kaufhof, I can choose from the entire range of Kaufhof (food, textiles, cosmetics).
2. Specific voucher (specific goods from the range)
If vouchers are issued for specific, specifically identified services, the amount paid as an advance payment is subject to VAT. If the selling price later exceeds the value of the voucher, the difference amount must also be subject to VAT.
Example: Voucher for a Sunday brunch at a restaurant. This cannot be redeemed for a dinner.
You would need to further specify your situation! But you can see that there are generally two variations.
In the forwarded consideration, a pass-through item can be seen. Pass-through items are not considered consideration within the meaning of § 10 Abs.1 UStG. However, the prerequisite is that there are immediate legal relationships between the payer (customer) and the payee (the other company). Immediate legal relationships require that the payer and the payee each know the other's name and the amount paid. Classic examples are expenses paid by a lawyer for court costs, etc. The tax treatment follows this definition. This means that if there is a pass-through item, a corresponding item must be activated in the balance sheet, and there is no income in the income statement.
I cannot provide a specific answer based on your description of the situation here either. If I assume a solution for No. 1 (General Voucher), VAT would only arise upon redemption of the voucher, as a service exchange occurs only then. Only then would you need to issue a corresponding invoice to the customer.
For shipping costs and specific payment transaction costs, the principle is that incidental costs follow the fate of the main service. Therefore, VAT at 19% applies to shipping and payment transactions.
If you would like to describe your case in more detail for a follow-up question, I would be happy to provide a final answer to your question.
Sincerely,
Thomas Textoris
Tax Advisor
