Chlamydia
Good day,
I would like to hear your opinion on how the chlamydia could have reached me. My husband had an affair. When he told me this, I already had these symptoms in my lower abdomen (which I hadn't had for years), so I got myself checked. The swabs, except for chlamydia, were fine. My husband was very sure that the chlamydia were transmitted to me through his sexual contact. At the same time, he got checked by a urologist. However, chlamydia could not be detected in his sperm, urine, or blood. You can imagine we were more than surprised. On my part, I can absolutely rule out any sexual contact with others and I also do not use any toilets other than our own.
According to my husband, the sexual contact was limited to oral sex, petting, and touching of genitals without penetration. However, my gynecologist said that chlamydia are only transmitted through sexual intercourse. Maybe he downplayed the sexual extent a bit to not hurt me even more - it's possible.
1 1/2 years ago, on my request, chlamydia were ruled out in me through a blood test (we had an infection 11 years ago, treated with antibiotics, but never rechecked). We found symptoms like sore throat through oral sex on Google, but no information on whether one can get infected this way. Can one only get sore throat through oral sex or can one also get infected?
Is it possible that my husband was a carrier of chlamydia without getting infected himself? I am curious to hear your opinion on this. Can I transmit chlamydia to our son - through anything (like a toilet, etc.)? Could my husband still have chlamydia even if nothing was found in the swab? Because we think everything adds up now - it's just questionable why chlamydia were not detected in my husband.
Thank you for your effort.
