Tax liability according to § 10b para. 4 EStG
Good day, this question does not need to be answered within 1 hour, there is time.
The above regulation states: "Anyone who causes donations not to be used for tax-privileged purposes due to gross negligence is liable for the tax..." (The following sentence specifies 30% for income tax).
In principle, it is completely logical and correct: The donor receives a donation receipt from the non-profit recipient of donations and saves an average of 30% in income tax. If the money is not used for tax-privileged purposes by the recipient of the donation, then the recipient (not the donor) must pay a flat rate of 30% in back taxes. It is completely clear, it can't really be any other way.
My question: Is this regulation a kind of 'punishment' for the recipient of the donation or is it a kind of 'basis for assessment'?
The case is as follows: Let's take a non-profit organization A that is also eligible for tax benefits. This organization has a non-profit economic sector in addition to the non-profit sector, but under the same tax number, not somehow outsourced. Let's assume the organization subsidizes the economic operation with approximately 50,000 - 80,000 euros per year, but knowingly hides this by intentionally distorted allocations in various general costs, so that the tax authorities never notice. In fact, for the tax authorities in the financial statements, the subsidy, and therefore the misuse of funds, is not visible because it happens at the internal accounting level that the tax authorities do not see. This way, the organization (intentionally) avoids back taxes according to the quoted regulation, that's clear.
If it is a kind of 'punishment', then it is still somewhat 'legal', because nobody has to accuse themselves of a penalty. However, if it is a kind of 'assessment basis', then it is no longer legal, because then the tax authorities are knowingly and intentionally withheld a basis necessary for tax assessment, and one would inevitably be quickly involved in § 370 or even 378 AO.
So the question is: Is it allowed to manipulate the accounting in such a way that the misuse of funds is disguised in the financial statements, or is it not allowed? If it is not allowed, which regulation is being violated? (A brief indication of the regulation(s) is sufficient).
It is assumed that this is not an isolated incident but a continuous practice over several years, and that the amount involved is approximately 50,000 to 80,000 euros per year. The whole thing is a typical non-profit organization of considerable size, with an annual total turnover of approximately 1,500,000. It is not a problem with the accounting system, as there are 6 different business areas that theoretically separate and represent everything accurately. In fact, there is intentional manipulation, where too little is allocated to the non-profit sub-sections in the general costs, and instead too much is