doctor's bill
June 20, 2009 | 20,00 EUR | answered by Dr. Lars Nozar
In 2005, I was treated by a general practitioner. I am a private patient, so I have to pay my bill myself.
Now in 2009, I received a reminder with a payment request. Supposedly, I had already received a bill in 2007, two years after the treatment. However, I did not receive this bill.
Do I have to pay the bill from 2009 or does the statute of limitations (three years) apply here, based on the treatment date? From what I could find on the internet, the billing date is considered the statute of limitations for medical bills, so would that be 2007 in my case?
Good evening,
The invoice date is irrelevant. If the invoice date were decisive, we would not need statutory limitation periods. The doctor could then indefinitely delay the limitation period by sending the invoice.
The point of reference is the completion of the treatment. If this was in 2005, the limitation period started running from 31.12.2005 and - as you correctly know, after three years - expired on 31.12.2008.
The claim is thus time-barred (an interruption of the limitation period, for example by a reminder, is probably not present? Even the receipt of an invoice would not be sufficient).
You should therefore respond briefly and succinctly to the invoice:
"I raise the objection of limitation; I will not conduct any further correspondence out of court in this matter."
You can handle the matter "completely relaxed" from now on. If a lawsuit or a reminder still comes, you should seek legal assistance to avoid making any mistakes in the court proceedings.
I hope this helps you.
Best regards
